India have added experienced fast bowler Bhuvneshwar Kumar to their squad for the fifth and final T20 International against the West Indies in Bengaluru on October 17, 2026. The move comes after left-arm pacer Arshdeep Singh suffered an injury to his bowling shoulder during the fourth T20I in Hyderabad. The squad change was announced on October 16.
The fifth T20I will be played at the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bengaluru, with India and the West Indies level at 2-2 in the five-match series. The final match will decide the series winner, making the contest important for both teams. Bhuvneshwar’s inclusion gives India another experienced pace-bowling option ahead of the decisive game. However, his participation will depend on his fitness assessment before the match.
Bhuvneshwar, 36, last played an international match for India in November 2022, when he featured in a T20I against New Zealand. His return comes after strong performances in the Indian Premier League, where he has continued to show his skills with the new ball and at the end of an innings. His ability to swing the ball and control the scoring rate could be useful for India in the series decider.
Arshdeep sustained the shoulder injury during the fourth T20I in Hyderabad. His fitness remains a concern for the team ahead of Saturday’s match. India will assess the available bowling options before finalising their playing XI. Bhuvneshwar’s experience could help India manage pressure in a match where every over may make a difference.
The comeback also gives the senior pacer another chance to prove himself at the international level. If he is cleared to play, the Bengaluru match could mark his return to T20I action after a gap of nearly four years. India will look to make the most of their home advantage and finish the series with a win against the West Indies.